MCQ


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MCQs ON KINGDOM FUNGI

1. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because of they (A) show association between algae and fungi (B) grow faster than others (C) are sensitive to SO2 (D) flourish in SO2 rich environment. Answer and Explanation: 1. (C): Lichens are found in Artie Tundra region where no other plant can grow. Lichens prefer to grow in pollution free environment. They are often used as an indicator of pollution and also they are very sensitive to SO2. They are first to die in a polluted environment (more SO2). 2. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes Answer and Explanation: 2. (B): The true fungi or the eumycetes are special types of achlorophyllous thallophytic organisms living a parasitic or a saprophytic mode of existence; they are always heterophytes and never autophytes. They depend on others for food, but all other groups as algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes are chlorophyll containing green plants that are autotrophic. 3. Organisms which are an indicator of SO2 pollution of air (A) Mosses (B) Lichens (C) Mushrooms (D) Puffballs Answer and Explanation: 3. (B): Lichens are the indicator of pollution. By studying the behaviour of lichens the type of pollution can be detected. They are the most sensitive and die in S02 rich area. 4. Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of (A) Parasitism (B) Symbiosis (C) Antagonism (D) Endemism Answer and Explanation: 4. (B): Association between roots of higher plants e.g pine, birch and fungal hyphae is called mycorrhiza. It exhibits the phenomenon of symbiosis. Here both the organisms in association are mutually benefitted. In this, fungal hyphae take nutrition from the plant and in return increase surface area for absorption of water and minerals for the plant. Mycorrhizal roots occur in superficial layers of the soil. They are thick, irregular with woolly covering devoid of root hairs and root cap. They are of two types – ectomycorrhiza and endomycorrhiza. In the roots of Pinus is seen ectotrophic mycorrhiza as the root hairs are poorly developed. In ectomycorrhiza, the fungus partner is commonly a basidiomycete. It lives in intercellular spaces of the cortex and forms a thick woolly covering on the outside. In endomycorrhiza, the fungus is commonly a zygomycete. The tips of fungal hyphae pass into cortical cells producing swollen vesicles or finely branched masses called arbuscules. Endomycorrhiza is, therefore, also called VAM or vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhiza. Outer covering is small. Parasitism is a phenomenon that involves a parasite which lives in constant association of the host and gets its food directly or indirectly without killing the host. Antagonism is the inhibition of growth of one organism by another. Endemism is the permanent occurrence of an organism inside another organism. 5. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by (A) Albugo Candida (B) Puccinia graminis tritici (C) Melampsora lini (D) Claviceps purpurea Answer and Explanation: 5. (B): Puccinia graminis tritici belongs to Basidiomycotina and causes black rust of wheat. It is an internal obligate parasite. It is found everywhere, where wheat is grown. The teleutospore of the fungus causes rust. They are produced inside teleutosori. These telia form elongated, dark brown to black pustules on the surface of stems and leaves of the wheat. Albugo Candida causes white rust of crucifers. Melampsora lini causes linseed rust. Clavicepspurpurea causes ergot of graminae. 6. Mycorrhiza is correctly described as (A) Parasitic association between roots and some fungi (B) Symbiotic relationship between fungi and roots of some higher plants (C) Symbiosis of algae and fungi (D) Relation of ants with the stem of some trees Answer and Explanation: 6. (B): Association between roots of higher plants and fungal hyphae is called mycorrhiza. Both the organisms are benefitted in this relationship. The fungal hyphae take nutrition from the plant and in return increase surface area for absorption of water and minerals for the plant. Mycorrhizas are found in the roots of Pinus. 7. Which one of the following statement about lichens is wrong? (A) These grow very rapidly (2 cm per day) (B) They show fungal and algal symbiotic relationships (C) Some of its species are eaten by reindeers (D) These are pollution indicators Answer and Explanation: 7. (A): Lichens grow by extending their thallus outwards from either tips or edges. They grow very slowly. Rates of growth can vary from 0.5 mm per year to 500 mm per year. This slow growth rate equates with their long life. 8. Most of the lichens consist of (A) Green algae and ascomycetes (B) Brown algae and higher plant (C) Blue green algae and basidiomycetes (D) Red algae and ascomycetes Answer and Explanation: 8. (A): Lichens are peculiar dual organisms produced by the intimate association of two organisms – a fungus and an alga. The association between the two organisms is called symbiosis. On the basis of fungal partner, lichens are of 2 types: (i) Ascolichens: In which ascomycete’s member is the fungal partner? Further in ascolichens, algal partner is mostly member of green algae and rarely blue- green algae. (ii) Basidiolichens: Where basidiomycetes member is fungal partner. In them algal partner is generally blue-green algae. In 80% cases algal partner is member of green algae or chlorophyceae and in 20% cases, blue-green algae or myxophyceae. Important members of green algae found in lichens are: Trebauxia, Pleurococcus, Trentepohlia and Cladophora. 9. Puccinia forms uredia and (A) Telia on wheat leaves (B) Aecia on barberry leaves (C) Pycnia on barberry leaves (D) Aecia on wheat leaves Answer and Explanation: 9. (A): Puccinia is a macrocyclic and heteroecious rust fungus. It produces uredia and telia stages on wheat plant. The spores produced on wheat are uredospores (stage II) and teleutospores (stage III). Uredospores can re-infect wheat but teleutospores cannot do it. Instead they give rise to basidia (stage IV). Basidiospores infect barberry. Pycnidia (stage I) develop on the upper surface of barberry leaves. Dikaryotisation occurs. It gives rise to aecidial stage (stage zero). Aecidia develop on the lower surface of barberry leaves. They form aecidiospores which infect Wheat. Thus basidial stage is produced on ground and pyenidial and aecidial stages are produced on barberry plant. 10. Columella is a specialized structure found in the sporangium of (A) Spirogyra (B) Ulothrix (C) Rhizopus (D) None of these. Answer and Explanation: 10. (C): Rhizopus is a saprophytic fungus that grows on dead organic matter. The mycelium is differentiated into three kinds of hyphae rhizoidal, stolons and sporangiophores. The rhizoidal hyphae are for anchorage and absorbing food by secreting enzymes. Stolons grow horizontally over the surface of the substratum. Sporangiophores are specialized hyphae that bear a sporangium at their tip (inside columella a dome shaped sterile portion the sporangia). It helps in dispersal of spores and usually persists even after bursting of the sporangium. 11. Black rust of wheat is caused by (A) Puccinia (B) Ustilago (C) Albugo (D) Phytophthora. Answer and Explanation: 11. (A): Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia gramini tritici it is heteroecious parasite which completes its life cycle in two hosts namely wheat and barberry. 12. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrate the host with the help of (A) Mechanical pressure and enzymes (B) Hooks and suckers (C) Softening by enzymes (D) Only by mechanical pressure Answer and Explanation: 12. (A): The adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of mechanical pressure and enzymes. It pushes against the cell wall of the host and then releases cellulase to digest cellulose of the host cell wall so that the hypha is able to penetrate the host cell wall. 13. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants? (A) Aspergillus (B) PeniciIlium (C) Fusarium (D) A and B Answer and Explanation: 13. (D): PeniciIlium and Aspergillus both produce toxins in stored seeds and grains. Aspergillus produces aflatoxin in fruits, vegetables, food grains and seeds etc. Penicillium produces yellow rice toxins in rice, barley and corns. 14. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers? (A) Loose smut of wheat (B) Corn smut (C) Covered smut of barley (D) Soft rot of potato. Answer and Explanation: 14. (A): Loose smut of wheat infects the healthy wheat plants at the time of flowering. Here chlamydospores, from smutted heads (blown by the wind) germinate on the stigmas and produce infection threads, infecting the ovaries and stigma. Ultimately, the fungus continues to grow within the embryo, as the seed matures. With the germination of these infected seeds, internal dormant fungal mycelium resumes its activity again. In covered smut of Barley, fungal spores are liberated out only by rupturing the wall of the grains, especially at the time of threshing. This type of infection takes place during the young seedling stage. Seedling infection occurs in covered smut of Barley. Shoot infection occurs in corn smut. 15. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers? (A) Loose smut of wheat (B) Corn smut (C) Covered smut of barley (D) Soft rot of potato. Answer and Explanation: 15. (A): Loose smut of wheat infects the healthy wheat plants at the time of flowering. Here chlamydospores, from smutted heads (blown by the wind) germinate on the stigmas and produce infection threads, infecting the ovaries and stigma. Ultimately, the fungus continues to grow within the embryo, as the seed matures. With the germination of these infected seeds, internal dormant fungal mycelium resumes its activity again. In covered smut of Barley, fungal spores are liberated out only by rupturing the wall of the grains, especially at the time of threshing. This type of infection takes place during the young seedling stage. Seedling infection occurs in covered smut of Barley. Shoot infection occurs in corn smut. 16. Lichens are a well-known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has (A) A saprophytic relationship with the alga (B) An epiphytic relationship with the alga (C) A parasitic relationship with alga (D) A symbiotic relationship with alga. Answer and Explanation: 16. (D): Lichen are peculiar dual organisms produced by the intimate association of two organisms a fungus and an alga. The association between the two organisms is symbiosis. Both the organisms are mutually benefitted in this association and are dependent on each other. The algal cell photosynthesizes with the help of chloroplast. Therefore lichens are autotrophic. A part of these manufactured carbohydrates are used by the alga in its nutrition, the rest is supplied to the fungal partner. The fungus in turn provides water and nutrients which it absorbs from the soil using the rhizoidal hyphae. Thus 2 both the partners get benefitted from each other. The algal partner is called phycobiont and the fungal partner is called mycobiont. 17. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within lichen. The fungus (A) Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the algae (B) Provides food for the alga (C) Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga (D) Releases oxygen for the alga. Answer and Explanation: 17. (A): Refer answer 16. 18. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread? A. Temperature of about 25° C B. Temperature of about 5° C C. Relative humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about 95% E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the answer from the following options? (A) B, C and F only (B) A, C and E only (C) A, D and E only (D) B, D and E only Answer and Explanation: 18. (C): Mucor is a filamentous fungus found in the humus of soil decaying fruits, vegetables. It is commonly known as black mould. Most of the Mucor sp. are unable to grow at 37°C and the strains isolated from human infections are usually one of the few thermotolerant 4, Mucor sp. colonies of Mucor grow rapidly at 25-30°C, humidity about 90-95% and quickly cover the surface of the agar. It requires moist and shady place for its growth. Many sp. of Mucor are responsible for causing roting of fruit and vegetables. A few sp. eg. Mucor pusillus are pathogenic to man. 19. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycetes? (A) Puffballs and Claviceps…

MCQs ON CELL RESPIRATION

1. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is known as (A) TCA-pathway (B) Glycolysis (C) HMS-pathway (D) Krebs cycle. Answer and Explanation: 1. (B) Glycolysis is the biochemical change in which one molecule of glucose is converted into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid with the involvement of ten enzymes. It is independent of oxygen and is common to both aerobic and anaerobic condition. It takes place in the cytoplasm and all the reactions are reversible. All the intermediates of glycolysis are not converted into pyruvic acid. Some of them build back the carbohydrates and the phenomenon is called oxidative anabolism. TCA cycle and Krebs cycle are synonyms where the pyruvic acid of glycolysis is utilized to form CO2. HMS is a hexose monophosphate shunt or pentose phosphate pathway which is an alternative pathway of glycolysis. 2. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH is (A) HMP (B) Calvin Cycle (C) Glycolysis (D) EMP(1988) Answer and Explanation: 2. (A) HMP pathway generates NADPH molecule which is used as reductants in the biosynthetic process under conditions when NADPH molecules are not generated by photosynthesis. It is, therefore, important in non- photosynthetic tissues such as in differentiating tissues, generating seeds and during periods of darkness. Production of NADPH is not linked to ATP generation in the pentose phosphate pathway. 3. R.Q. is (a) C/N (b) N/C (c) CO2/O2 (d) O2/CO2 Answer: (c) CO2/O2 (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 4. End product of glycolysis is (A) Acetyl CoA (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Glucose I-phosphate (D) Fructose I-phosphate. Answer and Explanation: 4. (B): In the glycolytic cycle, each molecule of glucose (a hexose sugar) is broken down in stepwise biochemical reactions under enzymatic control into two molecules of pyruvic acids. It takes place is cytosol. 5. R.Q- is ratio of (A) CO2 produced to substrate consumed (B) CO2 produced to O2 consumed (C) Oxygen consumed to water produced (D) Oxygen consumed to CO2 produced. Answer: (B) CO2 produced to O2 consumed 6. EMP can produce a total of (A) 6 ATP (B) 8 ATP (C) 24 ATP (D) 38 ATP. Answer and Explanation: 6. (B): Glycolysis is also known as the EMP pathway after the names of its discoverers. Embden, Meyerhof and Paranas. In glycolysis, 8ATP are produced. 4ATP are formed from substrate-level phosphorylation, out of which 2ATP are used up and a net gain of 2 AT P. 6ATP are produced from oxidative phosphorylation. Hence, Total ATP produced in glycolysis is 8ATP. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 7. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle before pyruvate entering Krebs cycle is changed to (A) Oxaloacetate (B) PEP (C) Pyruvate (D) Acetyl CoA. Answer and Explanation: 7. (D): End product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid which is converted into acetyl coA before entering into the Krebs cycle, which is aerobic in nature. 8. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is (A) Cyt. b (B) Cyt. c (C) Cyt. A1 (D) Cyt. a3. Answer and Explanation: 8. (D): Cytochrome a3 helps in transfer of electron to oxygen. The oxygen has great affinity to accept the electrons and in presence of protons, a water molecule is formed. 9. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration (A) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during respiratory chain (B) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside mitochondria (C) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs cycle (D) All are formed inside mitochondria. Answer and Explanation: 9. (B): During respiration, 36 ATP molecules are produced per glucose molecule. 2 molecules of ATP are produced outside mitochondria i.e. during glycolysis and other 34 molecules of ATP are produced inside mitochondria from Krebs cycle. 10. Link between glycolysis, Krebs cycle and P-oxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and fat metabolism is (A) Oxaloacetic acid (B) Succinic acid (C) Citric acid (D) Acetyl CoA. Answer and Explanation: 10. (D): Krebs cycle is intimately related to fat metabolism. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate produced in glycolysis may be ‘converted into glycerol via glycerol – 3 – phosphate and vice-versa. Glycerol is an important constituents of fats. After P-oxidation, fatty acids give rise to active – 2 – C units, the acetyl-CoA which may enter the Krebs cycle. Thus, Acetyl-CoA is a link between glycolysis, Krebs cycle and P- oxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and fat metabolism. 11. End products of aerobic respiration are (A) Sugar and oxygen (B) Water and energy (C) Carbon dioxide, water and energy (D) Carbon dioxide and energy. Answer and Explanation: 11. (C): The food substances in living cells are oxidised in presence of oxygen, it is called aerobic respiration. Complete oxidation of food matter (1 .mole of glucose) occurs releasing 686 Kcal of energy. The ends of products formed are CO2 and H2O. 12. At a temperature above 35°C (A) Rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration (B) Rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis (C) There is no fixed pattern (D) Both decline simultaneously. Answer and Explanation: 12. (A): The plants can perform photosynthesis on a range of temperature, while some cryophytes can do photosynthesis at 35°C. Usually, the plants can perform photosynthesis between 10°C – 40°C. The optimum temperature ranges between 25°C – 30°C. At high temperature, the enzymes are denatured and hence the photosynthetic rate declines. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 13. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of (A) ATP in photosynthesis (B) NADPH in photosynthesis (C) ATP in respiration (D) NADH in respiration. Answer and Explanation: 13. (C): In electron transport system the hydrogen donated by succinate is accepted by FAD which is reduced to FADH2. This hydrogen dissociates into electrons and protons and then passes through a series of carriers involving the phenomenon of oxidation and reduction. During this flow, ATP synthesis occurs at different steps and the phenomenon is called oxidative phosphorylation. 14. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and R.Q. is (A) Auxanometer (B) Potometer (C) Respirometer (D) Manometer. Answer and Explanation: 14. (C): Respirometer is an instrument used for measuring R.Q and rate of respiration. The apparatus consists of a graduated tube attached at right angles to a bulbous respiratory chamber in its upper end. Desired plant material who’s R.Q is to be determined is placed in the respiratory chamber. 15. End product of citric acid cycle/Krebs cycle is (A) Citric acid (B) Lactic acid (C) Pyruvic acid (D) CO2 + H2O. Answer and Explanation: 15. (D): The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid whereas acetyl CoA is the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle. The TCA cycle was first described by Krebs, 1937 as a cyclic process in which acetyl coA is oxidised to C02 and water. Acetyl CoA combines with oxalo acetic acid to form citric acid. After a series of cyclic reactions, OAA is recycled back. 16. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2 in (A) Respiratory chain (B) Krebs cycle (C) Oxidative decarboxylation (D) EMP. Answer and Explanation: 16. (A): During respiratory chain, complete degradation of one glucose molecule produced 38 ATP molecules. NAD and FAD is reduced to NADH/FADH2. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 17. Life without air would be (A) Reductional (B) Free from oxidative damage (C) Impossible (D) Anaerobic. Answer and Explanation: 17. (D): Anaerobic respiration (absence of oxygen) takes place in anaerobic bacteria and in plant seeds. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the organism which can live without oxygen. In this respiration, only glycolysis takes place due to the absence of oxygen. 18. The First phase in the breakdown of glucose, in animal cell, is (A) Fermentation (B) Krebs cycle (C) Glycolysis (D) E.T.S. Answer: (C) Glycolysis 19. When yeast ferments glucose, the products obtained are (A) Ethanol and CO2 (B) Methanol and CO2 (C) Ethanol and water (D) Water and CO2. Answer: (A) Ethanol and CO2 20. The ultimate respiratory substrate, yielding maximum number of ATP molecules, is (A) Glycogen (B) Ketogenic amino acid (C) Glucose (D) Amylose. Answer and Explanation: 20. (c): Glucose is the chief respiratory substrate which fields maximum number of ATP molecules. Glucose is the most common substrate in glycolysis. Any other carbohydrate is first converted into glucose. During glycolysis it changes to pyruvic acid and net gain is of 2 ATP and 2 NADH2 molecules. And later on during Krebs cycle, 30 molecules of ATP are produced. So a total of 38 ATP molecules are produced from 1 mol of glucose during aerobic respiration. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

MCQs ON BIOMOLECULE PART-2

(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. Which sugar is dextrorotatory and doesn’t indicate mutarotation? (A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) B&C 2. What is the specific rotation of aqueous solution of a mixture, which is produced after hydrolysis of sucrose? (A) -20° (B) -92° (C) +52.5° (D) +66.5° 3. The specific rotation in inverted sugar during hydrolysis due to the specific rotation of glucose solution is. (the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained at the end of hydrolysis is called inverted sugar ) (A) -20° (B) -92° (C) +52.5° (D) +66.5° 4. The specific rotation in inverted sugar during hydrolysis due to the specific rotation of fructose solution is_________ .(the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained at the end of hydrolysis is called inverted sugar) (A) -20°                     (B) -92°                        (C) +52.5°                    (D) +66.5° 5. Example of polysaccharide is (A) starch (B)sucrose (C) cellulose (D)A&C (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 6. General formula for polysaccharide is (A) (C6H10O5)n (B)Cn+2H2nOn (C)Cn+1H2nO (D)CnH2nOn 7. _  __   __      is the main component of cell walls of (A) cellulose (B) starch (C) protein (D) nucleic acid 8. In which solvent, cellulose is soluble? (A) water (B)chloroform (C) ammoniacal cupric hydroxide (D) alcoholic potassium hydroxide 9. which sugar is not present in a vegetable ? (A) glucose (B)sucrose (C)maltose (D) lactose 10. Which is not sugar? (A) starch (B) sucrose (C) maltose (D) glucose (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 11. Which substance in the animal body can be Converted in glucose and also gives energy when required? (A) sucrose (B) glycogen (C) cellulose (D) starch 12. ____ _______ is not a cellulose . (A) Nylon fibre (B) lilen (C) rayon (D) acetate fibre 13. protein is/are____ ___ (A) Enzyme (B) Hormones (C) Antibodies (D) All of the above 14. What are the names of scientist, who had obtained many amino acids from hydrolysis of protein? (A) Haworth & Hirst (B) Tollens & Tanret (C) Emil Fischer (D) all of above 15. which amino acid is known as C-terminal residue in alanylglycylphenylalanine? (A) Alanine (B) glycine (C) phenylalanine (D) none (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 16. Molecular mass of polypeptide is__ __ _ (A) 100 (B) up to 10000 (C) up to 20000 (D) up to 1 Crore 17. The molecular mass of protein _ __ __ (A) up to 1000 (B) up to 5000 (C) up to 10000 (D) >10000 Q18. The polypeptide chains run parallel and are held together by ____ (A) Disulphide (B) covalent (C) co-ordination-covalent bond (D) none 19. By which bond the polypeptide chains are held together in fibrous protein? (A) Hydrogen bond (B) covalent bond (C) disulphide bond (D) A&C 20. Which protein is insoluble in water, which is present in muscle? (A) Myosin (B) Albumin (C) Keratin (D) Insulin (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 21. In a-helix shaped protein, the polypeptide chain is coild in helix shape approximate _____ amino acids are included per turn of helix (A) 3.6 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72 22. Which isn’t the true reason for denaturation of protein? (A) Detergent (B) Change in pH (C) Increase in temperature (D) None 23. Which is the reason for the denaturation of protein? (A) Organic solvent (B) Detergent (C) Adding concentrate alkali (D) all 24. In certain clinical chemistry tests removal of all protein materials, which chemical is added to the sample? (A) Trichloro acetic acid (B) Benzoic acid (C) Ethanoic acid (D) Benzene sulphonic acid 25. Which is called a coenzyme? (A) Protein chain (B) Inorganic component as cofactor (C) Organic component as co-factor (D) Apoenzyme (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 26. Which of the following ions may be co-factor? (A) Zn2+, Cu2+ (B) C4+, Si4+ (C) CI–, Br– (D) PO43– ,S042– 27. which of the following is true? (A) Coenzyme(Active) + Apoenzyme(Active) → Enzyme(Active) (B) Coenzyme(Active) + Apoenzyme(Inactive) → Enzyme (Active) (C) Coenzyme(Inactive) + Apoenzyme(Active) → Enzyme (Active) (D) Coenzyme(Inactive) + Apoenzyme(Inactive) → Enzyme (Active) 28. Sucrose is hydrolyzed by _        _ enzyme (A) Zymase (B) Invertase (C) Emulsin (D) lipase 29. Fat soluble vitamin is (A) H (B) A (C) C (D) B 30. Haemorrhage disease caused by deficiency of_ _ __ _vitamin (A) Calciferol (B) Phylloquinone (C) Tocopherol (D) Retinol (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); ANSWERS: 1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-D, 6-A, 7-A, 8-C, 9-D, 10-A, 11-B, 12-A, 13-D, 14-C, 15-D, 16-B, 17-D, 18-A, 19-D, 20-A, 21-A, 22-D, 23-D, 24-A, 25-C, 26-A, 27-D, 28-B, 29-B, 30-B

MCQs ON BIOMOLECULE PART-1

(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. ______ is a biomolecule A) protein (B) enzyme (C) lipid (D) all of the above 2.  ______ is not a biomolecule. (A) vitamin (B) nucleic acid (C) formic acid (D) carbohydrate 3. What is the proportion of hydrogen and oxygen in a molecule of all member of carbohydrate? (A) 2:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 1:2 (D) no certain ratio 4. Which carbohydrate isn’t soluble in water and tasteless? (A)monosaccharide (B) trisaccharide (C) oligosaccharide (D) none of above 5. Which carbohydrate isn’t soluble in water and tasteless? (A) lactose (B) dextrin (C) fructose (D) melitriose 6. General formula for__ ____ carbohydrate is CnH2n-6On-3 (A)Disaccharide (B) Trisaccharide (C) tetrasaccharide (D) polysaccharide 7. Cyclic configuration for glucose is called Glucopyranose , because its cyclic chain contains ___ _____carbons & _ ____ _oxygens. (A) 6,1 (B) 6,2 (C) 5,1 (D) 4,1 8. The solubility of glucose in alcohol is (A) not soluble (B) soluble (C) more soluble (D) soluble in more alcohol 9. When rotation of an optically active organic compound is measured as anticlockwise then it is known as (A) lewrotation (B) levoratatory (C) (-) (D) all of the above 10. which carbon is anomeric carbon in cyclic structure of glucose? (A) Cl (B) C2 (C) C3 (D) C4 (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 11. which carbon is anomeric carbon in cyclic structure of fructose? (A) Cl (B) C2 (C) C3 (D) C4 12. what is the specific rotation of Aqueous Solution of sucrose? [before hydrolysis] (A) +19° (B) +52.5° (C) +66.5° (D) 112° 13. what’s the name of phenomenon when the rotation of sucrose solution reversed? (A) conversion (B) inversion (C) diversion (D) reversion 14. Which optical rotation has been obtained by aqueous solution of sucrose mixture, which is produced before hydrolysis of and after hydrolysis of sucrose? (A) Dextrorotatory , levorotatory (B) levorotatory , Dextrorotatory (C) levorotatory , levorotatory (D) Dextrorotatory , Dextrorotatory 15. two monosaccharide units of sucrose are linked by which carbon chain? (A) Cl-O-Cl (B) C2-O-C2 (C) C1-O-C6 (D) C1-O-C2 16. In sucrose a-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(-)- Glucose are linked by________ chain (A) glycolipid (B) glycosidic (C) phospholipid (D) phosphosidic 17. Which is non-reducing sugar? (A) glucose (B) fructose (C) sucrose (D) A&B both 18. Which is chosen as the standard for Sweetness of sugar? (A) sucrose (B) glucose (C) fructose (D) lactose 19. Which substance is produced by heating sucrose at 486 K temperature? (A) sucralose (B) elitem (C) caramel (D) arneto 20. Which substance is soluble in alcohol? (A) glucose (B) fructose (C) maltose (D) all of above (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 21. Two monosaccharide units of maltose are linked by which carbon chain? (A) Cl-O-Cl                             (B) C1-O-C2                                 (C) C1-O-C3                                  (D) C1-O-C4 22. Which is reducing sugar? (A) lactose (B) maltose (C) fructose (D) all of above 23. What are the sweetness index of fructose , glucose and lactose respectively (A) 74,173,16 (B)16,173,74 (C) 16,74,173 (D) 173,74,16 24. Which substance is produced before obtaining alcohol from the compound containing starch? (A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) A & C 25. By hydrolysis of which substance, we obtain two molecules of glucose? (A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D)A&B 26. By hydrolysis of which substance, we obtain one molecule of glucose? (A) lactose (B) sucrose (C) A&B (D) none 27. Which sugar reduces Fehling's solution and makes phenyl hydrazone with phenylhydrazine? (A) maltose (B) lactose (C) A&B (D) none 28. Which sugar doesn’t reduce Fehling's Solution? (A)     sucrose                (B) maltose                   (C) lactose                    (D) all of above 29. Which sugar is hydrolyzed by an emulsine enzyme? (A) sucrose (B) maltose (C) lactose (D) all of above 30. which sugar is dextrorotatory and indicates mutarotation? (A) sucrose (B) maltose (C)A&B (D) none (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); ANSWER 1-D 2-C 3-D 4-D 5-B 6-C 7-C 8-A 9-D 10- A 11-B 12-C 13-B 14-A 15-D 16-B 17-A 18-A 19-C 20-B 21-D 22-D 23-D 24-B 25-B 26-C 27-C 28-A 29-C 30-B

MCQ ON PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

Answer D Q1. Transpiration is least in (A) good soil moisture (B) high wind velocity (C) dry environment (D) high atmospheric humidity. Answer B Q2. Phenyl mercuric acetate (PMA) results in (A) reduced photosynthesis (B) reduced transpiration (C) reduced respiration (D) the killing of plants. Answer D Q3. Stomata open and close due to (A) circadian rhythm (B) genetic clock (C) the pressure of gases inside the leaves (D) turgor pressure of guard cells. Answer B Q4. Movement of leaves of sensitive plant, Mimosa pudica is due to (A) thermonasty (B) seismonasty (C) hydrotropism (D) chemonasty. Answer C  Q5. Phytochrome is involved in (A) phototropism (B) photorespiration (C) photoperiodism (D) geotropism. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer A Q6. Gibberellins promote (A) seed germination (B) seed dormancy (C) leaf fall (D) root elongation Answer B Q7. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if induced to root or dipped in (A) gibberellins (B) cytokinins (C) auxins (D) ethylene. Answer C Q8. Hormone primarily connected with cell division is (A) IAA (B) NAA (C) cytokinin/zeatin (D) gibberellic acid Answer D Q9. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway in (A) PS I (B) PS II (C) light reaction (D) dark reaction. Answer D Q10. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in (A) PS I (B) PS II (C) Calvin cycle (D) noncyclic photophosphorylation. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer A Q11. Minerals absorbed by root move to the leaf through (A) xylem (B) phloem (C) sieve tubes (D) none of the above. Answer B Q12.Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get depeleted in soil because they usually occur as (A) neutral ions (B) negatively charged ions (C) positively charged ions (D) both positively and negatively charged but disproportionate mixture. Answer C Q13. Which one is an essential mineral, not a constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the activity of many enzymes (A) Zn (B) Mn (C) K (D) Mg Answer C Q14. Which one increases in the absence of light? (A) uptake of minerals (B) uptake of water (C) elongation of internodes (D) the ascent of sap. Answer B Q15. Mowing grass lawn facilities better maintenance because (A) wounding stimulates regeneration (B) removal of apical dominance and stimulation of intercalary meristem (C) removal of apical dominance (D) removal of apical dominance and promotion of lateral meristem. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer D Q16. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of (a) abscisic acid (b) auxins (c) florigen (d) cytokinins. Answer C Q17. Which of the following hormones can replace vernalisation? (A) auxin (B) cytokinin (C) gibberellin (D) ethylene. Answer C Q18. The size of the chlorophyll molecule is (A) head 15 x 15 A, tail 25 A (B) head 20 x 20 A, tail 25 A (C) head 15 x 15 A, tail 20 A (D) head 10 x 12 A, tail 25 A. Answer B Q19. The substrate for photorespiration is (A) phosphoglyceric acid (B) glycolate (C) serine (D) glycine Answer A Q20. In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle operates in (A) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts (B) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts (C) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (D) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts. (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION MCQ

The biochemical process in which complex food converts into simple and absorbable substance with the help of digestive enzymes is called digestion. The diet substances include carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals and water. The human digestive tract includes mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small intestine, rectum and anal canal. Besides this certain accessory, digestive glands like liver and pancreas are incorporate (d) In the process of digestion five types of gastric juices, enzyme and other substances are help. In which saliva secrets from salivary gland, gastric (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer B Q1) Which enzyme is required for conversion of the complex component to simple component? (A) Hydrolytic (B) Migratory (C) Adhesives (D) Converter Answer C Q2) Which is the largest salivary gland of human? (A)Sublingual gland (B) Submandibular gland (C) Parotid gland (D) SubParotid gland Answer A Q3) What are the approximate lengths of the large intestine and small intestine respectively in human? (A) 5 meter and 2 to 4 meter (B) 2 to 4 meter and 1.5 meter (C)  7 meter and 5 meter (D) 5 meter and 7 meter Answer C Q4) What product can be obtained by erepsin? (A)Glucose (B) Amino acid (C) Trypsin (D) Glycerol Answer A Q5) In which organ of digestive track hydrolysis of starch into maltose take place? (A) Stomach (B) Liver (C) Duodenum (D) Mouth (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer D Q6) Improper sentence for liver (A)It 2 to 1.5 Kg weight in adult human (B) It like compound racemose gland (C) It lockated in abdominal cavity. (D) It is divided into left and right lobes Answer A Q7) How pepsin is differing from trypsin? (A)It digests protein in acidic medium (B) It digests protein in an alkaline medium (C) It digests carbohydrate in acidic medium (D) It digests carbohydrate in alkaline medium Answer D Q8) How the epidermal cells in the stomach of vertebrate animal have protected stomach again HCl? (A)HCl is dilute (B) Epidermal cells defence the function of HCl (C) HCL is neutralized in stomach (D) Epidermal cells covered with secretion of mucous Answer B Q9) DNA-ase and RNA-ase are enzymes produced by (A)Salivary glands (B) Pancreas    (C) Stomach    (D) Intestine Answer C Q10) Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by (A) Enterogastrone (B) Cholecystokinin    (C) Gastrin    (D) Pepsin (adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Answer D Q11) Human intestine large because (A) Bacteria in the food moves slowly (B) Substances of food digest slowly (C) It provides more space for the absorption of digested food (D) It provides more space for the storage of food Answer B Q12) Improper sentence for hepatitis (A) Eyes are seen yellow due to increased amount of bile pigment. (B) Toxic effect or moving effect in digestive tract is responsible. (C) The liver cells fail to excrete bile. (D) Obstacle occurred in bile duct. Answer B Q13) Which hormones are secreted by Pancreas? (A) Prolactin, Insulin (B) Insulin, Glucagon (C) Secretin, Glucagon  (D) Bilirubin, Prolactin Answer B Q14) By what Trypsinogen is converted into Trypsin? (A) Oxantic cells (B) Enterokinase (C) Bicarbonate salts (D) Chyme Answer D Q15) Which layer surrounds the cavity of the digestive tract? (A) Serosa (B) Muscular layer (C) Submucosa (D) Mucosa

BIOTECHNOLOGY

Q1. Rules to explain “The phenomenon of inheritance of biological characteristics” was formulated by: A) T.H.Morgan  B) Gregor Johann Mendell C) Rudolf Virchow D) Bateson  E) Lamark Q2. Genetic research was activated and a revolution in modern biology occurred in the year: A) 1951-53 B) 1961-63 C) 1971-73 D) 1975-71 E) 1981-83 Q3. Genetic engineering  usually utilizes cells and plasmids of: A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Algae D) Fungi E) Parasites Q4. “rDNA” is: A) Ribosomal DNA B) Riorazion DNA C) Resolution DNA D) Regenerate DNA E) Recombinant DNA Q5. DNA molecule into which a gene is inserted to construct a recombinant DNA molecule is: A) Activator  B) Initiator  C) Vector D) Starter  D) Accelerator  Q6. Concerning “PLASMIDS”, which statment is correct: A) They are small, chmmosomal circular DNA molecules. B) They are found in some bacteria and viruses. C) They can replicate independent of the host cell chromosome. D) Plasmids do not carry any genes which are responsible for useful characteristies. E) We cannot insert foreign (required) gene into plasmids to pre[are recombinant DNA molecules.  Q7.  Enzymes which are required to cut a source DNA molecule into small pieces and to cut plasmid to make a gap where foreign DNA fits into it are: A) DNA Ugase Enzyme  B) Constructive Enzyme C) Recombinant Enzyme  D) Restriction Enzyme  E) Regenerator Enzyme  Q8. The enzyme used to seal the DNA is: A) Restriction Enzyme  B) Ligase  C) Polymerases D) Reductase E) Regenerator Enzymes Q9: The enzymes that act like scissors in recombinant DNA technology are: A) Restriction Enzymes  B) Ligase  C) Polymerase  D) Reductase E) Regenerator Enzymes Q10. Restriction Enzymes were disovered in: A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1970s E) 1980s Q11. Each restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a specific site, called: A) Cut ends  B) Sticky ends C) Ligating ends  D) Recombination ends  E) Gliding ends  Q12. Now a days, insulin can be synthesized by genetically engineered bacteria: A) Salmonella typhi  B) Pseudomonas aurigonase  C) Shigella sortnei  D) Bacteriodes fragills  E) Eschinchia Coli Q13. An Organic compound used to make a sweetner by some genetically engineered bacteria is: A) Phenyltryptamine  B) Phenylanaline  C) Ketone Bodies  D) Diacylglycerol  E) Peroxidase Q14. The only plasmid for transgenic plant cells is: A) Gr-plasmid  B) Sc-plasmid  C) Ti-plasmid  D) Pr-plasmid  E) Nc-plasmid Q15) The First transgenic fruit approved is: A) Water Melon  B) Apple  C) Mango  D) Tomato  E) Pomegranate Q16. To increase the CO2 Fixation property, molecular scientists are working to enhance the efficiency of:  A) Ribolose biphosphate  B) Ribilose bicarbonate  C) Ribulose bicitrate  D) Ribulose bisuphate  E) Ribulose reductase  Q17. Human lactoferrin is a protein that is involved in ______ transport and has antibacterial activity. A) Potassium  B) Iron  C) Sulphur  D) Copper  E) Calcium  Q18. The synthesis of complementry DNA (cDNA) on mRNA template is the: A) Reverse translation  B) Dihybridization C) Reverse transcription  D) DNA ligation E) DNA polymerization Q19. In Eukaryotic gene cloning, the synthesis of cDNA on mRNA template is being catalyzed by an enzyme:  A) DNA polymerase  B) RNA polymerase  C) DNA ligase  D) Reverse polymerase  E) Reverse transcriptase  Q20: In Eukaryotic gene cloning, the synthesis of cDNA on mRNA is catalyzed by “Reverse transcriptase” obtained from: A) Retroviruses B) Reoviruses C) Rhabdoviruses D) Bunyaviruses E) Paramyxovirus Answers: Gregor Johann Mendell 1971-73 Bacteria Recombinant DNA Vector They can replicate independent of the host cell chromosome. Restriction Enzyme  Ligase  Restriction Enzymes  1960s Sticky ends Eschinchia Coli Phenylanaline Ti-plasmid  Tomato Ribulose  Iron  Reverse transcription  Reverse transcriptase Retroviruses

HOMEOSTASIS

Q1) The relationship between mineral and water is know as: A) Ascent of sap B) Osmoregulation C) Excretion D) All of them Q2) The cell sap having solution of: A) One types B) Two types C) Three types D) Four types Q3) The water potential not more than: A) 1 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10 Q4) The shrinkage of protoplasm is know as: A) Normal B) Turgid C) Plasmolysis D) Deplasrnolysid  Q5) The homeostasis means: A) Osmoregulation B) Excretion C) Both of these D) None of these Q6) In plant temperature maintained by: A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Inhibitions D) Transpiration Q7) Transpiration is take place through: A) Stomata B) Lenticle C) Cuticle D) All of these Q8) The process of transpiration take place during: A) Daytime B) Night C) Both of these D) None of these Q9) A check and balance mechanism requires to maintain homeostasis in body is: A) Guard system B) move back system C) Operation system D) Feedback system E) Haemostasis Q10) Series of similar effect, which leads to the enhancement of the change under consideration is: A) Positive feedback B) Longitudinal feed back C) Negative feedback D) Transverse ted hack E) Vertical  feedback Q11) Opposite effect produced in relation to changes in the body fluids is: A) Positive feedback B) Longitudinal feedback C) Negative feedback D) Transverse ted hack E) Vertical  feedback Q12) The potential energy of water molecule can be termed as: A) Osmotic Pressure B) Water Pressure C) Partial Pressure D) Solute Pressure E) Solvent Pressure Q13) In case of plant cells, the wate potential of cell san is termed as: A)  Osmotic Pressure B) Water Pressure C) Partial Pressure D) Solute Pressure E) Solvent Pressure Q14) Plant cell become turgid in solution: A) Hypertonic B) Hypotonic C) Isotonic D) Paratonic E) All are incorrect Q15) There is a net movement of water out of the cell in _____ solution: A) Hypertonic B) Hypotonic C) Isotonic D) Paratonic E) All are incorrect Q16) The plants which are formed in fresh water habitat either partly or completely submerged are termed as: A) Halophytes B) Heterophytes C) Hydrophytes D) Mesophytes E) Xerophytes Q17) The plants growing in salt marshes close to sea are termed as: A) Halophytes B) Hydrophytes C) Heterophytes D) Mesophytes E) Xerophytes Q18) “Waterlily “ is: A) Halophytes B) Hydrophytes C) Heterophytes D) Mesophytes E) Xerophytes Q19) Plants living in, dry places such as deserts. Steep hills, etc. and face scarcity of water is: A)Halophytes B) Hydrophytes C) Heterophytes D) Mesophytes E) Xerophytes Q20) Some plants store warter in large parenchymatous cells present in stem or leaves, suc plants are termed as: A) Respirants B) Translucent C) Succulents D) Adjuvants E) Hydatids   Answer: Osmoregulation Three types 1 Plasmolysis Both of these Transpiration All of these Daytime Feedback system Positive feedback Negative feedback Solute Pressure Solute Pressure Hypotonic Hypertonic Hydrophytes Halophytes Hydrophtes Xerophyte Succulents

VARIETY OF LIFE

Q1)  Any attribute or descriptive phrase, referring to form, structure or behaviour of a specific organism for a particular purpose is: A) Expression B) Specificity C) Character D) Nature E) None of the above Q2) Which one of the following is an example of “Expression of character”? A) Petal length B) Stem thickness C) Corolla colour D) Sepals colour green E) Leaf shape Q3) Living organisms having fundamental similarity in their structure are studied under: A) Biochemistry B) Anatomy C) Homology D) Heterology E) Cytology Q4) From evolutionary point of view, flipper and wing are believed to resemble human: A) Hand B) Foot C) Fingers D) Arm E) Leg Q5) Concerning homology, which one of the following statement is correct? A) Structurally, dissimilar organisms are studied B) Homology refers to gross structures alone C) Homology also refers to chromosome numbers and types D) Structure and functions are not always closely related to physiological homologies E) Structure and function similarities must be present for a structure to be homologous Q6) Concerning classification of living organisms, which statement is correct? A) The final tool helping in classifying organisms is Genetics. B) Microscopic structure cannot be useful at the genetic and species level. C) It is impossible to compare amino acid sequence in the proteins of different organisms even by using chromatographic & electrophoresis techniques. D) DNA base sequence study is not an important tool for classifying organism. E) None of the above Q7) The basic unit of biological classification is: A) kingdom B) Genus C) Family D) Species E) Order Q8) A group of organisms which have numerous physical feature in common and which are capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring is: A) Species B) Genus C) Family D) Class E) Order Q9) Closely related species are grouped together into: A) Phyla B) Genus C) Family D) Order E) Class Q10) Families are grouped into: A) Genera B) Orders C) Species D) Kingdoms E) Phyla   Q11) Genera are grouped into: A) Species B) Orders C) Families D) Kingdoms E) Sub-phyla Q12) Orders are grouped into: A) Genera B) Families C) Species D) Classes E) Phyla Q13) Classes are grouped into: A) Genera B) Orders C) Species D) Kingdom E) Phyla Q14) Phyla are grouped into: A) Genera B) Orders C) Classes D) Kingdom E) Families Q15) When classifying plants and bacteria, which term is used instead of phylum? A) Class B) Sub-class C) Division D) Sub-phylum E) No other terminology is used Q16) Sub-phylum is an intermediate category which may be inserted between: A) Phylum and Family B) Phylum and Genus C) Phylum and Species D) Phylum and Order E) Phylum and Class Q17) Sub-class is an intermediate category which may be inserted between: A) Class and Kingdom B) Class and Genus C) Class and Species D) Class and Order E) Class and Phylum Q18) Concerning classification of Housefly, choose the correct match: A) Kingdom  ………. Arthropoda B) Class ………. Arthropoda C) Class ………. Insecta D) Class ………. Diptera E) Family ………. Musca domestica Q19)  Concerning classification of wheat, choose the correct match: A) Kingdom  ………. Tracheophyta B) Class ………. Monocotyledonae C) Class ………. Tracheophyta D) Class ………. Triticum E) Family ………. Poales Q20) The names of the four highest taxa are: A) Kingdom → Class → Genus → Species B) Kingdom → Species → Order → Family C) Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order D) Kingdom → Phylum → Family → Order E) Kingdom → Family → Order → Genus Answers Character Sepals colour green Homology Arm Homology also refers to chromosome numbers and types The final tool helping in classifying organisms in Genetics Species Species Genus Orders Families Classes Phyla Kingdom Division Phylum and Class Class and Order Class ………. Insecta Genus ………. Triticum Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order

ENZYMES

Q1) Enzyme is a Greek word which means: A) in virus B) in bacteria C) in fungi D) in yeast E) in humans Q2) Who discovered that certain molecules of ribonucleic acid also function as enzymes? A) Friedrich Wilhem Kuhne only B) Friedrich and Thomas Cech C) Thomas Cech only D) Sidney Altman & Thomas Cech E) Sidney Altman only Q3) Molecule of ribonucleic acid which functions as enzymes are called: A) Increase energy of activation of reaction B) Maintain energy of activation of reaction C) Lower down energy of activation of reaction D) No effect on energy of activation of reaction E) Highly increase energy of activation of reaction Q5) Naturally, most of the enzymes are: A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins E) Nucleic acid Q6) Regarding nature of enzymes, which one is correct? A) They are inorganic catalyst. B) Large quantities are required to bring a change in large amount of substrate. C) They are non-specific in their nature but specific in their action. D) They are specific both in their nature and action. E) None of these. Q7) Regarding enzyme molecule: A) Greater in size than the substrate B) Smaller in size than the substrate C) Of the same size as substrate D) No relation with substrate E) They are not substrate specific Q8) Enzyme molecules are: A) Heat sensitive but not pH sensitive B) pH-sensitive but not heat sensitive C) Both pH and heat sensitive D) neither pH nor heat sensitive E) Chemically changed during and after the chemical reaction Q9) Fischer in 1898 proposed: A) Induce fit theory B) Enzyme lock theory C) Catalyst fit theory D) Key-lock theory E) Rejection fit theory Q10) Koshland in 1959 proposed: A) Induced fit theory B) Enzyme lock theory C) Catalyst fit theory D) Key-lock theory E) Rejection fit theory Q11) Enzymes can: A) React with acidic substances only as they are proteins. B) React with alkaline substances only as they are proteins. C) React with acidic and alkaline substances both. D) No, react with acidic and alkaline substances they are proteins. E) Partially react with acidic substances but not with alkaline substances. Q12) Regarding nature of enzymes, which one of the following is correct? A) Enzymes are modified lipids. B) Simple enzyme consists of protein and non-protein part. C) Conjugated enzyme consists of non-protein part. D) Amylase is an enzyme which entirely consists of protein. E) Amidase is an enzyme which entirely consists of proteins. Q13) In case of conjugated enzymes, the proteins part is called: A) Proenzyme B) Apoenzyme C) Protoenzyme D) Proteino-enzyme E) None of the above Q14) In case of conjugated enzymes the non-protein part is called: A) Prosthetic group B) Apoenzyme C) Prosthetic group D) Holoenzymes E) Proenzyme Q15) Enzymes are classified into _____ classes: A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six E) Seven Q16) Enzymes Oxidases and Peroxidases are included in class: A) Hydrolases B) Lyases C) Oxidoreductases D) Ligases E) Transferases Q17) Enzyme hydroxylase is included in class: A) Hydrolases B) Lyases C) Transferases D) Ligases E) Oxidoreductases Q18) Enzyme, Glycosidases is included in class: A) Hydrolases B) Lyases C) Transferases D) Ligases E) Oxidoreductases Q19) Class hydrolases include: A) Oxidase B) Hydroxylase C) Epimerase D) Dehydratase E) Phosphatase Q20 ) Synthetases are enzymes included in class: A) Transferase B) Hydrolases C) Epimerase D) Dehydrates E) Phosphatase Answers In yeast Sidney Altman & Thomas Cech Ribozymes Lower down energy of activation of reaction Proteins They are specific both in their nature and action. Greater in size than the substrate ‘Both pH and heat sensitive Key-lock theory Induce fit theory React with acidic and alkaline substance both. Amylase is an enzyme which entirely consists of protein. Apoenzyme Prosthetic group Six Oxidoreductases Oxidoreductases Hydrolases Phosphatase Ligase